How did they go from the vast verb system of PIE to just two grammatical tenses...

how did they go from the vast verb system of PIE to just two grammatical tenses? did only the brainlets move to northern europe or something? even the most vulgar modern romance language has a more complex system for verbs.
and modern germans are even bigger brainlets when it comes to verbs. absolutely abhorrent.

Attached: proto-germanics.png (657x683, 38K)

You need to look into history. Before we adopted Latin runes, our alphabet was constantly worked on to be more efficient. Same thing goes for the language.
If you look up rune alphabets (not the Latin one) you'll see how few letters there are.
It was snot until we got converted that we had to adopt another alphabet so that we could write Latin.
To conclude, were not brainlets, just efficient.

Isn't there some meme theory that languages cycle?

Agglutinative >>> fusional
Fusional >>> isolational
Isational >>> agglutinative

I wouldn't know

the swedish language is extremely easy to read due to its simple grammar and short words. it is however, extremely difficult to understand when spoken due to the absolutely incomprehensible swedish dialects and tendency to smush as many words and sounds together as possible.

>Hörru fattaru Elle?

that doesn't really relate to what I was asking.
how is fewer verb tenses/complexities more efficient? if anything it is less efficient because you need modal verbs and other helper words to complete thoughts
seems like a meme to me.
tbqh imo languages go from analytic -> synthetic over millennia in isolation and then synthetic -> analytic over centuries in contact with other languages

>Because having to remember a bunch of tenses is so efficient
Jump
>hoppa
Jumped
>Hoppa(de)
Going to jump
>(Ska) hoppa
Simple as

it's not hard to remember when it's your native tongue or a tongue you've been immersed in for a while

Its not as efficient then is it?