How do south euros cope with the fact that without germanic peoples their nations would never exist?

Ay yo hol up hol up, so u be sayin.. So u be sayin dat.. Hol up hol up nigga.. So u be SAYIN dat chileans wuz Swedes n shiet?

because of the importance of latin and the small number of germanic immigrants nothing changed much

Then why even call it France? Face it, the Franks were an elite, lording over masses of Latin-speaking peasants, it doesn't add up that they'd learn Pig Latin instead of the other way round.

Thanks guys for reminding me I'm on Jow Forums and that debates are pure concentrated autism. Do you even realize on what the fuck you are arguing about?

>Do you even realize on what the fuck you are arguing about?

No, I just don't like when dumb small Chileans speak up to European masters

you descended from your whore mother, when I was done raping her, son

Redpill me on the differences between indo-european and the proto-european

Only true for France. The Visigoths got BTFO by the arabs and after that nothing was left but a strip of land.

Mon dieu...

You think the French have a problem being descended from the very people their country is named for?

Frankish nobles were an elite. Not Frankish commoners, who settled Neustria and the French parts of Austrasia, outnumbering the native Gauls in many formerly Gaulish lands. This is why medieval sources and modern historians refer to Franks in places in France outside of the Frankish homeland, for example Normandy("In Normandy the conquering northmen had assimilated...the indigenous Frankish and Gallo-Roman peoples...", page 2 of this book: books.google.com/books/about/The_Debate_on_the_Norman_Conquest.html?id=qJl5Jm-IndUC ). Another piece of evidence to support this fact is the continued existence of a Gallo-Roman nobility after the Merovingian conquest, who kept ruling their civitates, such as Soissons, before eventually being assimilated by the Salian Franks through intermarriage. Meaning there was no ethnic group ruling over the other, just an ordinary aristocratic order.
A linguistic shift from Frankish/OHG to Old Gallo-Romance did occur, yes, but it doesn't change the fact that Frankish settlement in northern France was substantial. In fact, if you look at the specificities of French compared to the other Romance languages, it becomes obvious because Frankish influence prevented French from having a typically Latin melodious tone, and also generally made it the most innovative Romance language(en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_French#Frankish ). Meaning people from the oïl speaking sprachbund--the pays d'oïl-- are indeed descended from the Franks to varying extents.

Attached: france_oil.gif (226x203, 3K)

Never seen a white person before Ahmed?
Proto indo european 1600cc brain capacity flows through my veins

No. Spain (and possibly Portugal are as well)

Okay, but why didn't they just stick with German? Britain also spoke a Romance language but they were throughly Germanized after

>Britain also spoke a Romance language
???

the romans did fuck all in britain mate, the natives spoke various celtic tongues despite their short "rule"

we were "civilized" by romans not suebi or visigoths

>The Visigoths got BTFO by the arabs and after that nothing was left but a strip of land.

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>we were
>your ancestors were in portugal pre 711

edgy

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Romance

inded they were

>»Phylogeographic analyses show that the haplogroup composition of the ancient Iberians was very similar to that found in modern Iberian Peninsula populations, suggesting a long-term genetic continuity since pre-Roman times.« (...)
>Sampietro et al