Anyone else do math for fun in their spare time?

Then it’s 2/4 not 1/3 retard

Cashchad here. Answer is 1/3.

Coretards once again proving their retardation

>"What is the probability that both are heads?"
>2/4

Attached: 7e59a8ad0435bc.jpg (236x234, 6K)

Attached: equally probable possible outcomes.png (533x255, 6K)

are you seriously debating it's not 50% chance ?

Wtf is math ?

I was a math major in college and also tried getting into finance. I am looking for a finance job now actually. But I reread some of my math textbooks sometimes and try to get further. I got through Rudin's Functional Analysis book (Grandpa Rudin), Dummit and Foote's Abstract Algebra, and Munkres Topology and stopped.

Seen this exact debate several times here. someone count the possibilities among these and tell me if you still think it's not 1/3

Attached: gay.png (532x255, 12K)

There is no difference between T/H and H/T so it’s 1/2 = 50% for fucks sake

Think about it: the coins are two different entities, HT and TH are different outcomes. Imagine labelling your two coins "A" and "B", then you can see that the four outcomes displayed in are equally likely. This is why the chance of having one head and one tail is 50% and the chance of having two heads or two tails is only 25%.

If you know any programming language you can make a quick numerical simulation to conform this. Or just flip some coins on your table, I guess.

2 ruled out
>A tails, B heads
>A tails, B tails
So you’ve got
>A heads, B tails
>A heads, B heads
Left, meaning it’s 50% chance
Right?

Or do you say since you don’t know if it’s “A” or “B” that only T/T is ruled out, so 1/3 chance left?

3/4

You're not just laying one of your coins on the table and flipping the other. Not unless you flip the first one and it is tails.

Attached: 1531164138476.png (924x560, 63K)

>This thread again
ffs it's the golden ball problem
btw it's 33%

It needs to distinguish between, 1. Your outcome will contain 1 heads. (1/3) 2. You see one coin already and it is a heads. (1/2)

The answer depends on your interpretation of the poorly worded question.

Attached: wakarimasenlol.jpg (523x313, 40K)

Suppose you throw a coin enough times...
Suppose one day, it lands on its edge...

Attached: Kain.jpg (480x360, 15K)

Only in practical usecases. Before they nerfed staking on Runescape, I had up to 11 maxed accounts I borrowed from friends to stake using tick manipulation to get to a >50% probability of winning, and Kelly Criterion to determine bet sizing based on the edge I thought I had against my opponents. I averaged about $27/hr but then when introduced the staking tax, the small edge I could build with being 1 tick ahead/behind my opponent was gone.

its 1/4

head,head
tail, head
tail, tail
head,tail

75%

As Soul Reaver taught me, we usually struggle between 2 polar opposite options and often forget that sometimes a coin can land on its side, but logic abhors a paradox.
Quantum computing will change the world

1/3
this pic explains it best

It's easy to show by rewording the problem:
I have two coins. I flip them.
I tell you that at least one of them is heads.
I offer you a bet: you pay $1 and win $1 (ie get $2 in return) if there are two heads.
Do you take the bet?

50%

What you want is:
H (Head) : H (Head)
You already got:
H (Head)

Now you need to know the outcomes and their probabilities of what remains:
you already got one head, so the second coin can either be H (Head) or T (Tail). Meaning you can get these total outcomes

H (Head) : H (Head) or
H (Head) : T (Tail)

the chance to get either Head or Tail on a coinflip is 50%, so that both your coins are Head, when one is heads guaranteed is 50%

>all these people don’t understand conditional probability

100%

also, if you still dont belive this, go to random org right now, generate 100 numbers in 2 columns between 0 and 1. 0 is heads, 1 is tail.
Now replace every number in your first column with a 0 for the guaranteed Heads.

Count how often you got 2 zeroes in a row and you will get close to 50% of the pairs.

>user doesn't understand basic probability

Attached: alert.png (1000x1000, 78K)

I play economic boardgames

literally do this:

It's going to blow his mind when he discovers the monty hall problem

Thank you, someone's thinking today.

you stupid

this what me was of think
if the first coin is always 100% going be heads...

then you can just erase that part from equation !

order does not matter so it has only 3 outcomes. TT, HH, TH. TT is out so its 1 out of 2 option. it would only be 1/3 if the 2 coins were different and their order mattered

Hey nerds, $DEAL is about to pump on crex24. If you aren't making money then you ain't good at math, PERIOD. Don't tell their Telegram group or the whale might not buy.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox

It's a paradox u brainlets

JUST FUCKING DO THIS YOU FUCKING AUTISTS

The answer is 1/3 user. This is not a debate

doesn't matter which is the head so you are wrong. 2 possible outcomes.

It's 50% you fucking special eds. One is already confirmed to be heads so it is only one coin flip.

you flipped both at the same time. your chance of getting at least 1 head is (0.5*0.5)*3=75%, while if you flip both separately, the first coin has a 50% chance of landing heads. having a confirmed heads is different in the 2 scenarios.
if it was "you rolled a coin and it landed heads, whats the odds of the second being heads" then yes, it would be 50%. but since you throw both at the same time, you have 2 possible results: heads+tails, tails+heads and heads*heads. 1/3.

no man just stop, with that statement asserting one is head you removed a coin from the toss. it's probability of being head is 1 not 0.5, while the others is 0.5 so 1*0.5 = 0.5 simple as that.

Holy shit, exactly.

Why is everyone else here so retarded?

If the outcome of one of the coins is already determined, then it no longer factors into the calculation at all.

There is ONE coin whose outcome has not been determined, therefore the probability is .5.

>Why is everyone else here so retarded?
uhm m8 like 80% gave the correct answered the rest is probably trolling don't fellate yourself for having 2 braincells.

People are wrongly saying 50% instead of 1/3 because the question was worded shitly.
Let me ask the same thing a different way:

You have a computer program that generates coin tosses. The result can be heads or tails. The program will simulate two coin tosses, coin A and coin B.
However, there is a special rule written in the program. At least one of the two coins will always be head. What is the chance of it generating heads for both coins A and B.

The answer is 1/3, and you can quickly code a program to do this and verify yourself. You have 3 possible outcomes:
Coin A: Heads; Coin B: Tails
Coin A: Tails; Coin B: Heads
Coin A: Heads; Coin B: Heads
1/3 chance of being two heads.

It isn’t always coin A that is heads, or coin B. So you have to consider all three possibilities. This is not up to debate. It’s 100% factual and can be verified.

.999.... /= 1

it would only be 50% if it stated "you throw 2 coins in the air. the one on the left is heads, what is the probability of the other being heads too?". then yes, you would have 2 outcomes. heads+tails and heads+heads.

if you cant understand that one of them, regardless if its the one on the right or the one of the left, being heads is different than stating that the one on the left is heads, then i dont know what to say.

order doesnt matter:
Tails+heads
heads+tails
tails+tails (ruled out)
heads+heads
33% chance

order matters:
heads+tails
heads+heads
50%chance

yeah people are fucking retards it's sad

so it's a selection ambiguity question... i see.

Heads+tails=tails+heads

Actually, I take back what I said. There are 3 different ways to implement a program like this, and depending on how you do, it can be either 1/2, 1/3, or even a 1/4 chance.

If you make it throw two coins, and if both are tails, you make it throw both again until at least one is heads, then yes, it's 1/3.

If you make it so that, everytime you get 2 tails, you turn either coin A or coin B into heads, then it becomes 1/4 (25%)

If you make it so that, before the throw begins, you randomly choose either coin A or coin B to be heads, and then only toss the other one for heads or tails, then you get a 50% chance.

OP's pic was really ambiguous and the answer depends on the implementation.

it's just a selection ambiguity thing
makes you think of physical coins and imagine seeing a head. in that case the coin not seen would have a 1/2 probability being head. but if you approach it with math the question only excludes the tail-tail scenario. and both of them being head is indeed 1/3 in that case. but it's not something you would encounter in real life.

shut up,do this, like what more proof do you need

It doesn't just exclude a tail-tail scenario, it excludes any possibility of one coin being heads.

If you talking about running tests in a software, see

what?

>If you make it so that, everytime you get 2 tails, you turn either coin A or coin B into heads, then it becomes 1/4 (25%)
that shouldn't be right...

you got the original (00, 01, 10, 11) and or it with (01, 10) turns it into (01, 01, 11, 11) and (10, 11, 10, 11) both having a 50% chance of 11 so adding them together and dividing by 2 doesn't change the outcome.

was thinking the same, if the answer should be 50% or 33%
and stupid questions like this happen in tests

I agree with you. In a math sense, the implementation that excludes the “tails,tails” option seems to be the “correct” one, and that gives a 1/3 chance. But I feel like that’s more of a convention. Depending on how one would try to simulate this in real life, the result varies.

Not quite how I meant to implement it. Let me put it this way:
You throw two coins. This can result in:
HH, HT, TH, TT
if result is TT: then make it into either HT or TH.
However, neither of those would make it a HH, so the chance keeps being 25%.

Of course, out of the three ways I mentioned, this is the most retarded, but can still be one of the first that comes to a programmer's mind.

why would a programmer bother if it doesn't change the outcome?

Let's put it this way:
You flip 5,000 coins. 4,999 of them are heads. What is the chance that they are all heads?

The answer is, of course, 50%, as each coin's flip has a binary outcome that does not influence the outcome of any other coin's flip, and the outcome of 4,999 of your 5,000 coin flips has already been determined. Anyone who argues that the chance is lower than 50% is simply falling for the gambler's fallacy.

hmm "how to fuck up fair statistical randomness with bad code" the exercise, but there is a hard temptation for this come to think about it.

if you reroll 00-s only technically this code can be a never ending cycle. not likely but it's runtime is nondeterministic. meanwhile only fucking with the 00 before showing the result gives you 2 steps max.

Attached: random_number.png (400x144, 7K)

I unironically love doing Laplace transforms, linear algaebra and fourier series whenever I have a break

you fucking retard, ok do the following:
go to random org again
this time do 150 numbers in 3 columns 0 to 1
first and second columns are head (number 0) and tails (number 1) as before, however the third column decides wether column 1 (if its 0) or column 2 (if its 1) will be your guranteed head. change the value in each row respectivly.

Now count all instances where you got 2 zeroes in column 1 and 2. You will end up with close to 50%

I’m seriously surprised by bad math traders, down 90% from their enters/ATH, that believe that they only need a +90% to break even.

If 1 coin is guaranteed to be heads then the probability is 50% because you're essentially only flipping one coin.

POSSIBILITIES

Zero are heads[n] One is heads 2x[y] Both are heads [y]
3 potential possibilities, all with equal probablity of occuring, one of which is both heads
ergo 33% both are heads

no, wrong, do this:

Tails heads = heads tails

25%, 2 heads for 2 coins = 1/2 * 1/2

...

Like everything in life it is 50/50

Either it will be or it wont be.

jesus christ a lot of people aren't gonna make it

unless it's related to women, then most of the time it won't happen

i bought LINK so im going to be a millionare by 27 drowning in asian pussy

Gods ruled 1 is heads
So we only need to find the chance of the other one being heads also
Unironically its 50/50 (either is or isnt) lest it falls on the edge and remains like this.
49.999314 final answer

Attached: 1537575646275.jpg (326x294, 23K)

Brainlet,
there are 4 possibilities:
1: heads heads
2: tails tails
3: heads tails
4: TAILS HEADS
25%

one is said that its heads no matter what though so only the 2nd one will flip our chances by a 50/50 margin hence the desired outcome being 50% probable.
>50%

4 has one heads too, which makes it 1/3

I met a sperglord my first day at one job that had a math equation on a whiteboard on his desk. He’s like, bet you can’t figure out what this means! Had all kinds of nonsense, double integrations, a summation, some other stuff. And a less than sign in the middle instead of =. I stare at it for about 10 seconds. And I’m like, it says 0 < 1. Then he starts sputtering, Y-YOU GUESSED THAT.
[spoiler]I did.[/spoiler]

Attached: 7479F87D-BD7F-472A-80C8-948ABAB012CB.jpg (482x533, 137K)

Yes. It’s the difference between the interpretation of flipping two coins at the same time vs flipping one coin, seeing that it’s heads and then flipping a second one.

The answer is always OP=fag, in this case proving it by presenting a horribly worded question.

I do. Mostly calculus. I also enjoy mentally multiplying large numbers as I drift off to sleep by halving one and doubling the other. It's a good exercise and eventually commits products to memory that you can later whip out and impress npc coworkers.

i love meth

lol nice story user

Is this thunder the piggy

1 in 3, nigger

let's do monty hall next

Kys

No, it's two other possibilities retard

xrp