Why were the Germans more successful when they invaded Russia in WWI compared to when they invaded in WW2?

Austria did most of the work

Look at this pathetic winter gear

They didn't stand a chance

Attached: original (1).jpg (800x526, 86K)

>nazis create space travel tech
>nazis btfo britain and france
>german empire ????????

Because Georgians are more Aryan than Germans.
If Stalin was a tzar the Germans would get their ass kicked in Great War so bad that there would be no 2.

Attached: 20150726_142207.jpg (3984x2988, 2.84M)

German units would sometimes have to raid locals for proper winter gear

Contrast that picture I posted in the previous post with the one I'm posting now - this is the type of winter gear the locals wore. Should be a good indication of how brutal the winters were and how ill-equipped the Nazis were for cold warfare.

Attached: SmallUnitsRussia07.jpg (500x628, 202K)

German Empire at those times was inovative as fuck. They literally used to raid London with ancient planes and zeppelins, they dominated the ocean and seas with most advanced submarines and navy, they were pioneers in new weapons and war meta with shit like flamethrowers, they battled on 3 fronts and held strongly for 4 years, and they didnt have a modern gear as Nazis to make invasion of France easy, German Empire was close to take Paris really fast literally in like a month but the Brits and French tried to surround up their army by pushing up north and when the Germans retreated to avoid that the trench warfare started which led to stale war and basically no progress.

I blame Italy and Yugoslavian commies desu

Romanov was absolutely ass blasted by the Japanese prior to the war.

ww1 russia was internally weakened by us due to the export of lenin and the purge this piece of shit brought

ww2 was just 'won' by them due to the enormous amount of military hardware the brits and americans sent over to the soviets, which helped them to kinda zerg / stall us to death:

> en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lend-Lease

they were superior in any case and both world wars were effectively won by america joining the war and (directly or indirectly) overruning us

Attached: 1416115056001.jpg (1095x1195, 343K)

Two reasons:
Stalin had much more control over his country than Nicholas II did. The NKVD permeated into every facet of society to a far greater degree than the Tsar's Okhrana and ensured that no kind of dissidence, let alone rebellion, could occur as it did in 1917.
The Soviet Union had gone through Stalin's crash course industrialization and as a result had massive production capabilities compared to Imperial Russia, even after the loss of important regions in the west. They produced more shells in 1942 alone than the Empire did for the entirety of WW1.

Soviet military tactics weren't just all about throwing bodies and hardware at the enemy. They actually had a very decent assault strategy that the Germans were not prepared for, especially after they lost air support.

That and a WW1 corporal had complete control.

cause based Bismarck layed the ground works you faggot, while wilhelm shitted on Bismark foundation.

In WWI, Russia lost 1.5 to 2 million troops.

In WWII, Russia lost between 8 and 11 million troops.

So define "successful"

many factors

Stopping Germany from invading deep into Russian territory

Germany penetrated much further into Russia in ww2 than they did in ww1. Ww1 Tsarist Russia just capitulated.

Russian Military was not up to date with the tech

in world war 2, the germans were literally only miles away from moscow.

>So define "successful"
They actually won against Russia but were forced to withdraw after Versailles

Because in World War One OIL wasn't as necessary as it was in the Second World War.

Truth is Hitler needed to secure the Caucasian oil fields within four months of his invasion of the Soviet Union. Case Blue was basically a last grasp to get said oil, and everything went downhill from there.

The oil was far more important than Moscow.