How did a tiny amount of Slavs end up ruling all of Asia?
Russian Empire at its full extent in 1864
The Russian Empire was mostly controlled by Albanian royalty which explains why they were so powerful.
>loses to a nation that left feudalism 10years ago
your daily reminder 60 million mongolised sl*veshits died for that...lol
it's no wonder r*ssia cannot get it's footing again.
much of it was unexplored area for long time like Syberia/Alaska
Basically because nobody else wanted it, so the dreggs of slavic society were either forced or voluntarily settles the Siberian frontier. Some even went to Alaska, but not many
because mongolcucks are cucks
Nigger, the Tsars were more Armenian and Georgian than Albanian, if they even had any Albanian in them. Albanians never contributed shit to the world.
Empty land nobody wanted until recently.
Just like a tiny amount of canadians happened to rule the half of North America, just like tiny amount of australians happened to rule, well, Australia. Asian part of Russia is mostly uninhabited. The only valuable parts are all in Europe.
tsars were German dummy
That's like saying "How did a tiny amount of Canadians end up ruling all of North America?" Russia has only ever controlled a small part of Asia, and the least-inhabited, coldest part.
Huge territory in Asia was added without any wars. It was just an expedition to the east without any big armies
No, Tsars were Russian too
T.I.G.E.R.S
Most it was uninhabitable and empty, so it was easy to conquer. Even now 80% of the Russian population lives in Europe.
>Russian population
>tiny
Based and tigerpilled.
Read history, buccko.
>me in lower right
>(((Slavs)))
Bolsheviks were NOT Slavs. The very name "Slavic" has it's roots in slavery. To whom do you think they were slaves?
Nice b8 m8.
Oh look, another Russian slide thread to keep Jow Forums under tight GRU control.