Is it accurate to say that the White is to the Jew as the black is to the white?
Is it accurate to say that the White is to the Jew as the black is to the white?
No.
no.
nO.
Yes
yes.
Whites are the House niggers of Jews
but Blacks think Whites are jews, there isnt a difference, and they're right. Ashkenazi are just whites larping as jews.
A kike is what a negro would be if he had lots of money (gibs) and an IQ of 98.
Given that Whites aren't asking to live in the Jews country, asking for affirmative action or welfare from the Jews, or lusting after Jewish women.
I'd say no.
The Jews can just leave Britain, I don't want their money.
Its accurate to say that :
>kike = nigger
Problem solved you fucking slimeball
no as the jewish people follows the white community
the jew is a shoe shiner for the White, with his jew tongue
>Is it accurate to say that the White is to the Jew as the black is to the white?
No.
>Is it accurate to say that the White is to the Jew as the American Indian / Australian aborigine is to the white?
Fixed
Jews only got to where they are due to a constant victim complex trying to make others feel sorry for them and screwing people over for affluence, that isn't superiority its psychopathy
Is it accurate to say that jews are gypsies ? Yes, fuck them pariah scum kikes
yes but mouthbreathers here will seethe
whites lusting over asian women are like niggers lusting over white women
As a skeleton, I say that this is wrong. It is the whites who rule over the Jews.
Whites want complete separation from Jews. Nogs only want separation from consequences, but still want tied to whitey in the form of gibs, proximity, etc. Also Jews are hypocritical as all fuck with their
>Everyone except us is entitled
given that they've been kicked out of hundreds of nations for refusing to abide by the terms of their settlement (often getting better deals than the average native), yet it's always everyone else's fault.
I wonder.
If all the turbosperg 1488 IQ types got together and decided to become nomadic, agreed on a victim backstory beforehand, and just started squatting in other nations, would the effect of not being tied to dumbfucks in the same manner as the host population, allow them to always eventually subvert any nation that allows them to influence its politics without forcibly assimilating them (eg children raised by the state, etc)? Could this have been how Jewish nomad culture, and "Jews" as we know them started? Not through displacement at the hands of muh Romans or muh Arabs, etc, but as a deliberate gang-like predatory strategy on the part of high IQ members of some "non Jewish" civilization (could be Romans, Arabs, etc), exploiting the internally non violent, but super eugenic effects of simply getting together and excluding idiots, then opting not to create a new society of their own, but instead to keep moving between already established societies, until one of them shows a lapse in judgement (eg allowing them political, media, etc influence without breaking up the cliques), at which point the discrepancy in entropy between the clique and the host will always result in them rising to power. If the clique agrees in advance to pursue social influence roles, like media, education etc, then any attempt of the host to fight back after the fact can be woven into the ready made victim backstory and origin myth once a critical mass of clique members have saturated these roles,
Jews and Whites are the same. When the Jew wants something untoward to get done he asks a "White", when a White wants something untoward to get done he asks a "Jew". You faggots are the same, and people on this board are too dumb to figure that out.
>jordanbpeterson.com/psychology/on-the-so-called-jewish-question/
Of course.
The Ashkenazi are a mixed population, they do obviously have European admixture. But that doesn't negate their Semetic origin, considering their apparent E1B markers, spunky hair and other wise Middle Eastern features. Pic related.