Why Jesus Christ is called King of the Jews

First off, the title of King of the Jews is false. In the plaque that Pilate had placed above Jesus during His crucifixion and in the original Koine Greek of the New Testament, Jesus is called King of the Judeans. In fact, the word Jew was a medieval term, it did not exist at the time of Jesus and it is very inaccurate. Anytime you see this word in the Bible, remember that it should Judeans.

At the time of Jesus, Israel (or the House of Israel) was divided into Judea, Galilee, and Perea, as you can see in the picture. Jesus Himself was born in Bethlehem, however Mary was a Galilean and Jesus was brought up in Nazareth, a city in Galilee, making him a Nazarene, but more importantly a Galilean. This is important because of the tension between Galilee and Judea, which is a major reason why the Judeans rejected Jesus. They scoffed at the idea of their Messiah coming from Galilee. You can see this in the New Testament:
>"Surely the Messiah does not come from Galilee, does he?" (John 7:41, spoken by a Judean.)
>"Search and you will see that no prophet is to arise from Galilee." (John 7:52, spoken by a Judean.)
>"After this Jesus went about in Galilee. He did not wish to go about in Judea because theJudeans(the text has the mistranslation, "Jews") were looking for an opportunity to kill him." (John 7:1)

Now, when He is crucified by the Judeans, the plaque that is placed above Him says "THIS IS JESUS OF NAZARETH, KING OF THE JUDEANS". This is an insult to the Judeans. How could a Galilean, a fiercely hated one at that, be a king of the Judeans? This is why the high priest asks Pontius Pilate take the plaque down.

There is also another meaning. Jesus is a descendant of David, which gives him actual right to be King of the Judeans.

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Other urls found in this thread:

youtube.com/watch?v=EEyRO4f-pXk
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platonism
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Form_of_the_Good
twitter.com/AnonBabble

Now, if you recall, earlier Jesus said that He was only sent to the "lost sheep of the house of Israel". This lost sheep are the Judeans. Many people think this verse is saying that Jesus only came to bring salvation to the Judeans, but what He is saying is that He was sent unto the Judeans so that He could be crucified and that the prophecy would be fulfilled. This is also why He says "salvation is from among the Judeans", the Judeans killed him and thereby brought salvation to all.

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Sort of a dumb argument to even have.

The real point is that kikes aren’t Jews, and Jews don’t exist anymore.

Not really dumb considering the amount of idiots spouting the "you worship a kike on a stick" argument.

bump

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lol jew denial from christcucks is pathetic

Well, Jesus wouldn't be a Jew because he's not related by blood to any human, even Mary, otherwise he'd inherit the sin nature of man. His earthly body was formed by divinity, not human biology.

The word Jew doesn't appear once in the original language of the New Testament. If you can't accept this then you are the one in denial.

They don’t even know what the words they say mean, how do you hope to reason with them?

Calling Jesus a kike is like calling a square round, it’s nonsense.

What's even the argument? If every place that says "Judean" is replaced with "Jew" then the words mean the same thing.

Reminder Samaritans (which were the tribe that didn't go to Babylon and don't believe in the talmund) are more related to Arab Palestinians than Jews. The modern Jew is fake and from Russia or Germany

Well, I used to be an edgy atheist looking into becoming an edgy LARPagan, so I guess these people can be reasoned with. At least the ones who are already on the fence.

Jew is a bogus term. Judeans, Galileans etc were different and Jew just lumps them in one category. It also completely takes away the meaning of King of the Judeans. Oh and the word Jew being in the bible is the main cause for Evangelical boomer Judeo-Christians who would die for kikes that don't care about them.

Oh and it also makes it seem like the modern "Jews" this user was talking about are biblical "Jews"

>Oh and it also makes it seem like the modern "Jews" this user was talking about are biblical "Jews"
Of course they're the same. The ethnic definition of a Jew is to be descendant from Jacob.

Like I said see this user's post:
Khazars aren't descended from Jacob

>There is also another meaning. Jesus is a descendant of David, which gives him actual right to be King of the Judeans.

This could also be one if those "You said it." moments.

I'm black and I approve this message

Bump

This is actually the best christain analysis I've seen on here.

To add on. John denied being Elijah to advance the prophecy as well.

Jesus and John knew what they were doing the entire time. There's also a reason the jordanians and Israelis won't let anybody near where Jesus baptized john.

Most Judeans by that time were Edomites because of the Hasmonean forced conversions which worked quite wonderful for the Edomites to rank up and take over the Israelite society from within.

What I am supposed to see? Even if Judeans that didn't believe in Jesus migrated to Europe they would have kept their religion and wouldn't suddenly become pagans. For them their religious identity was everything. So modern Jews would be descendants of the ancient Judeans, they just screwed up their religion trough the centuries.

No proof at all

Kike worshippers will get the rope

Thank you for explaining this. But beware that most boomers on Jow Forums wont understand stand this

See:

Descendents of the 12 tribes of Israel still exist all over the world. Those who call themselves "Jews" today simply are not one of them.

the absolute state of christcucks

Correct and incorrect. Jesus was a Nephilim, yes, but this is done by epigenetic manipulation of human DNA. The original sin of man is a very complex subject and as we know, many Nephilim from divine bloodlines were evil, at least as considered by other divine beings who opposed them.

And what your evidence that not one Jew today is an ethnic descendant of Jacob?

The Old Testament is a collection of poorly re-written pagan myths. Jews are pagans. Every religion is pagan.

>Jesus is a descendant of David
this is bullshit but I believe it

Always struck me as weird they said Jesus was Jewish. What’s their angle?

Simple question: what do you call a man who is circumcised, lives in Jewrusalem, reads Torah and teaches in the synagogues, observes the sabbath and Passover and feast of tabernacles? To me that sounds like a dirty jew.
>Judeans, Galileans etc were different
Why should we care? It's like the difference between the different Native tribes. They're all dirty savages that are basically the same so why does any difference matter?

The story of Jacob and Esau is a derivative re-write of the Egyptian myth of Geb (Esau) and Osiris (Jacob).
Prove me to a man named Jacob ever existed and he wasn't invented as part of the Jewish attempt to create their own mythology during the Babylonian exile.

Simple. You go to a people and claim their god is one your bloodline. Therefore, they should respect you and worship you as well. You make the symbols and heroes of your enemies yours, and place a crown on yourself.

Accurate information and required reading. Here's some additional learning.

youtube.com/watch?v=EEyRO4f-pXk

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>Anytime you see this word in the Bible, remember that it should Judeans.

Sometimes it should properly be translated as "Judahites", i.e. members of the (racial/ethnic/familial) tribe of Judah. But, yes, every instance of the word "Jew" in the King James (and many other versions) should be viewed as a mistranslation (by today's meanings and understandings as to what a "Jew" is now).

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Seems the same to me. How is it a miss-translation?

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Changes nothing about the fact that Christianity is Judaic/semitic in origin and not European. It is a sandpeople religion like all the other monojudeotheisms

What does it mean for something to be European and why is that important?

Cuz its used to brainwash christians.
Also the bible is a symbolic book.
Jesus is story just the positions of Saturn, Mars and Venus.

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take the atheist redpill, stop worshiping kike propaganda

Nope, take the platonic pill.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platonism

Because no one who sees/hears the word "Jew" today is going to associate that with either meaning #3 in your pic, or "someone living in the area of ancient Judea", as OP has pointed out. 99% of people who hear or see the word "Jew" are going to automatically associate it with what we think of as the "Jews" today, which is covered in meanings #1 and #2 in your pic, neither of which is the intended meaning of the words from which "Jew" in the KJV (and others) has been translated.

How is there a difference between #1 and #3? The diaspora after all was scattered abroad from Judah and Israel?

>quits believing a palestine kike
>just to start believing a greek kike
no. take the atheist redpill, its the only rational choice

Your flag looks really gay

Except greek philosophy is based on reason and being atheist is ilogical, read first before acting like a retard
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Form_of_the_Good

This is an autistic thread, but I will point out that the New testament also uses a term often translated into Jews that really mean
'Jewish leaders', or 'religious authorities', ect.. Depends on the translation you use, because many don't even make a distinction.

If Jesus is a descendant of King David, making him Judean, and his Father was God instead of Joseph, meaning only his mother could have been the descendant of King David, then why was his mother considered to be from Galilee?
Or was Joseph the descendant of King David?

Judah is but one of the tribes of ancient Israel (which in scripture is always a people, and never a place as we might think of it today), and scripture sometimes refers to members of that tribe specifically. If the word you're translating the original word into doesn't capture that information, then you've completely lost the meaning of the verse. As an example of something else that be misunderstood, consider the verse,

>"... for salvation is of the Jews" (John 4:22, KJV)

, which is frequently used today to argue that "the Jews" (by today's understanding of that term) are saved already, or that Jesus came for "the Jews" (again, by today's concept), when -- if you look at the text from which this verse was translated, the word used is "Ἰουδαῖος" ("Ioudaios"), which would today be properly translated as either "people living in Judea" or "people of the tribe of Judah" (since this tribe was the main tribe in the region of Judea -- the other being Benjamin). When THIS is taken into consideration, then it's clear that the verse is saying that the Messaiah will come from the land of Judea, or that He will come from the tribe of Judah. Jesus Christ was both from the land of Judea and the tribe of Judah.

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Related closely to these issues is a fact which many readers of the Bible -- including many pastors -- just don't "get". And that fact is that many verses in scripture are referring to (and making a distinction between) the 2 separate kingdoms of the ancient Israelites -- into the "House of Judah" which was comprised mostly of the 2 "southern tribes" of Judah and Benjamin, and the "House of Israel" which was comrprised of the remaining tribes (and is sometimes today referred to as "the lost tribes of Israel"). It's all a bit complicated, but after awhile you start to get an understanding of what's really being talked about. For a big example of what I mean,

>"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
" (Galatians 3:28, KJV)

is often quoted by Christian universalists (which I believe is unbiblical) as evidence that Jesus is the savior for both "the Jews" and "the Gentiles", when in reality the verse is referencing the 2 separate kingdoms of the ancient Israelites -- The verse is saying that Jesus has come for ALL of the descendents of the man called Jacob/Israel, whether they are circumcision-observing members of the Kingdom of Judah, or whether they are members of the 10 "northern tribes" of the Kingdom of Israel, who fell out of keeping the Law, and many of whom followed the other gods of both the Greeks and Romans, and who were later referred to as the "lost tribes of Israel", etc. I personally believe that the "lost tribes" migrated into Europe and formed the European nations. I also suspect that "the Jews" of today have merely usurped the identity of the descendents of the ancient Israelites, with the true descendents being many of the white "Gentiles" of the world. This is one of the bases for the belief known as Christian Identity.

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