Why do Romance languages do this?

Try German, you'll understand Romance languages are easy.

la bite
feminine penis
la quequette
sissy

lies
Car is female
Tables are females
Bed is male
Cups are female
Houses are female

It's easy and consistent across all Romances languages really, I've no idea why the Anglos are always complaining about that.

Why am I a retard for not knowing what gender your language thinks a door is?

yea fuck that shit

literally barbaric

But most of the things you just said aren't true in other romance languages.

Cars are male in Spanish
Tables are male in Italian
Beds are female in Spanish
and so on.

we don't really do that anymore

Mesa is feminine.

>assigning genders to inanimate objects
Why can't you retards just come up with a simple and logical language like ours?

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Why yes, that is irony.

Only sailors do the ship thing and countries as women is a thing of the past.

Il tavolo is masculine.
Though la tavola is feminine

Hey, what do you know? Maybe that dino is onto something.

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>Why do Romance languages do this?
Almost all European languages do that, except English -which did it in the past but got rid of genders alongside declension and real conjugation.
You may think this made English "clearer" or "simpler", but the price you had to pay was making English an extremely fixed word-order language. Which hinders its capability of giving different senses to the same words.
>In English you'll always say "big man", but in romance languages you can say "big man" or "man big", each one giving a different connotation, and this flexibility in word order is possible thanks to gender inflection.

>not having an original superior genderless neuter language
plebs

Wtf where all the memes at

>don't knowing that nouns can be transgender now

We got no genders and flexible word order
What now, romancecuck?

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Tell me about os ideais and as ideais

Dont be a retard. Finnish is enormously flective, a lot more than romance languages. Even lacking genders, it indicates a lot more grammatical accidents of words than Spanish, and certainly more than English.

And that's a good thing.
You'll always spot a foreigner when they try to use Finnish.
No matter how hard they practise.

Os ideais come from Ideal, trans: Ideals, ex: I have my ideals and I don't go against them
As ideais comes from Idea, ex, I have an idea

Of course it's a good thing; as I already told you, inflection possibilitates flexible word order. Indoeuropean languages (other than English) use gender as a way to inflect nouns.

>Why am I a retard

languages don't think. a door is a door. female gender. that's how the language works. you answered your own question in the same sentence.

>for not knowing what gender [...] a door is.

Somebody arbitrarily decided that a door is feminine. There is nothing about doors that inherently suggests that, it's your language that's decided that, or if you're going to be pedantic about it, the people who developed your language.

Grammatical gender has nothing to do with sex. A door is "femenine" in Portuguese just because it ends in -a. It all comes down to Latin declension. There is nothing "femenine" or "woman-like" in a door or a table.

then why call it feminine you fags

Every Romance language has exceptions to this, which makes it extra-retarded

Because women's names happen to be of said declension.

Usually comes down to etymology. A lot of the masculine words in Spanish that look feminine entered through Greek instead of Latin, for example. Honestly it's overblown if you just include the article with word when you're learning.

>pene and bicho are masculine
>verga and pinga are feminine
>has nothing to do with masculine or feminine penises

Most exceptions are words of Greek origin. It's just that indoeuropean languages respect the gender of foreign words most of the time.

>Grammatical gender has nothing to do with sex. A door is "femenine" in Portuguese just because it ends in -a
So you think this utterly arbitrary nonsense is acceptable?

>being a subset of russian spoken by 1M people living in a small area
>native language is literally going extinct
>no one even knows who built the charles bridge shit is so far gone

well well well

Every languages has exceptions to every single one of its rules, at least they're explicit. Spoken English on the other hand seems completely disassociated from its written form with its rule-less pronounciation.

English is one of the last languages that should be criticizing others as arbitrary due to what a hodgepodge it is. The way English plurals and past tenses are formed are way more inconsistent

Everything is arbitrary in a language. Otherwise we will calling cows "moos" and dogs "woofs".
>Do you think it's acceptable?
Since these are natural languages, yes,there is no alternative other than to accept it, because it just the way the languages are. This isn't like Esperanto where some new decided every feature of the language.

Grammatical gender is a subset of noun classing, and it is (albeit seemingly less and less so as time passes) linked to the gender of the noun you're describing. This can be seen fairly evidently in a language like French where le père is masculine and la mère is feminine, but of course as others have said there are weird things that don't make sense like la bite. Ultimately, no matter how your language uses noun classification, whether it's based on gender or not (for example, animate vs. inanimate), there are going to be nouns that either seem to belong in both or neither (why is a table feminine in French?). That's probably why so many people think it's not actually based on gender, when it actually is but to such a loose degree that people forget it.

It's a retarded feature alright

I’m not going to disagree that English has an astounding number of retarded exceptions and that it’s one of the least phonetic languages I’ve encountered. This probably stems from being a Germanic language that got Francified

Do you have any source to back it up? As far as I know, primitively here were "femenine" words, then words with similar endings acquired femenine gender just because of their endings and not for being inherently femenine.

And I thought Americans were the ones with shitty education

The stem of the problem of English is its botched integration of foreign words. Usually, languages would either change the pronounciation of said foreign word to match the spelling, or change the spelling to match the pronounciation. But English did neither and we nowadays have a complete mess with its overly foreign vocabulary from French, Latin and various Germanic (Angle, Saxon, Norse, Jutish, ...) mainly that have no actually cohesion.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noun_class#Common_criteria_for_noun_classes

Here's the wikipedia article on it if you want to read more. And I wouldn't disagree with what you said either- there are declensions inside the Latin language that were almost entirely one gender or the other. The fact is, the gender of objects that aren't animals/human beings in real life change all the time, because for them it's a completely arbitrary (but also useful) distinction that won't be immediately obvious to either a young native speaker or a person learning it as a second language.

Not only Romance languages but quite a few assign a grammatical gender to nouns

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Most of the dumb American stereotypes are just meme perpetuated by Canadians and Brits because they need to deflect. Ask Western Europeans how they feel about English tourists

Yes. Note that, in order to not be confusing, this structure shared between language can be (and in my opinion, should be) described as "noun class" instead of grammatical gender, because as you can see there, many of the systems have nothing to do with gender at all. Although you will see grammatical gender used in the place of noun class often.

I dont think anyone disagreed with you on that though, most of the comments were about the shortsightedness of people doing the "arbitrary" to "bad" instantly in their minds.
I fucking always made mistakes when learning German in middle school with their genders, I know how it is for a non-native.

Exactly, and actually that’s the term you usually find in linguistic texts

Man who is big works

In Romanian there are 3 genders.

Depends on which English my friend. Other pidgin and creoles of English are phonetic.

slavs do it do. it really is the marker or a low iq people when their language has such a useless feature

cups are female, tho.

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Vaso
Copa
Hmm...

It is absolutely obvious when it's feminine or masculine.
For example in Spanish the word for door, puerta, is obviosly feminine.
Everything above doesn't apply to French.

>not having 3 genders
Romance languages are just as stupid as you OP, they couldn't handle 3 genders sl they dumbed down their language and made it retarded. There's no cases as well and the Genitive case just became "de". Of course they will defend this transition and say their inbred hick language (like french) is beautiful and superior to Latin.

It's sad that fucking Romanian is closer to Latin than Romance languages.

Es BISEXUAL!

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fuck latin lmao who cares about a dead language

>fuck french lmao who cares about a dead language

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I'm always confused why Latin and French aren't just one big part.

>mfw we have 5 cases and neuter

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Romanian is even better haha

Mmmm que rico

Also
>It's sad that fucking Romanian is closer to Latin than Romance languages.
But user Romanian IS a Romance language

>Dravidian languages have FIVE (5) genders
Top wew

You're right, but Italian, Spanish, and French are similar. Not in how they pronounce/write words but in their grammar. None of the Neuter gender, none have cases, and all are similar in their articles.

They have an easier time reading as well as understanding the other languages (of course some have different words for the same verb/noun) but it's not the same for them to read romanian. They have no concept of the neuter gender nor cases. They can get a good idea of a sentence in Romaniann, but they wom't understand the meaning as well as say, an Italian reading Spanish.

didnt latin have "genders" for verbs aswell as nouns?

Romanian is probably the closest language to vulgar latin there is today, along with maybe sardinian/corsican

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At least for Spanish, that is not true.

We have masculine feminine and neuter :^)
English is an exception, most languages have genders.

>his example doesn't have anything to do with gender, at all
Did you mean to fail this badly?

it was true for Latin language, not latin derived languages

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This is a stupid pie chart and you're stupid. It's artificially inflated by the sheer number of Latin and French root legal and scientific terms that only highly specialized experts use in their fields. Try the 10,000 most commonly used words to see how many are Germanic/Nordic and then come cry to me

The animate/inanimate thing isn't gender so much as needing to distinguish bob from vegana

Why don't you?
>why Romance languages do it
Romance do, Slavic do, and Germanic do too except yours apparently? Ask the Brits what did they mean by that.

Any why is single negation a thing in English?

I agree, but it's not exclusive to romance.

Slavic lanugages have both genders and cases. Try that one for size.

what sucks is that a lot of words have different genders in french compared to other romance languages

+animate/inanimate.

(Widzieć chmury/widzieć chmurów).

>“genders” for nouns
Maybe you’re talking about “nominal cases”, see pic related
>for verbs
Verbs are conjugated
>Romanian is probably the closest language to vulgar latin there is today, along with maybe sardinian/corsican
>A 1949 study by Italian-American linguist Mario Pei, analyzing the degree of difference from Latin by comparing phonology, inflection, syntax, vocabulary, and intonation, indicated the following percentages:
>Sardinian 8%
>Italian 12%
>Spanish 20%
>Romanian 23.5%
>Occitan 25%
>Portuguese 31%
>French 44%.

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>Usually, languages would either change the pronounciation of said foreign word to match the spelling, or change the spelling to match the pronounciation.

This was done in English until Francophile scholars decided to ape the French who had started "correcting" some of their own words to better reflect Latin for no other reason than to jerk off.

If you want a serious answer see:
degruyter.com/view/product/41172
wold.clld.org

I'm only studying Ancient Greek. Languages like Russian and Hindu have gender past tense verbs. I don't know where to find out if Latin does.

Modern Greek has articles along with gender and cases. Try that on for size. Oh and sweety, Plural isn't a gender. Each gender should have a plural ending.

Car is female in French (la voiture)
Bed is male in French (le lit)
Cup is female in French (la tasse)

You can't even come up with consistent genders for this shit, what exactly is the point?

Latin had gender, but there are also declensions or different endings for the same gender.

>syntax
I doubt Italian has cases.
>vocabulary
Thank the Slavs who introduced a lot of their vocabulary to Romanian.
>phonology
See above, Moldovans used the cyrllic script to write Romanian.
Greek actually has 5 cases, if you include the articles στο, στην, and στον. Its not really a case but necessary for prepositions.

It's an idea of the world embedded in the language.

Oh my. Where did your cases go my balkan friend?

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>he doesn't have a feminine dick

>gendering inanimate objects
>and thinking Americans are the retarded ones

alv